openhacker

End result of this problem... I'm using AmericanExpress credit secure -- and after paying the original creditor what I owed that with a Bank Money order, my credit report listed a paid collection with a $0 balance due. I followed whychat's HIPAA process...and several weeks ago sent the "courtesy letter before filing an HIPAA complaint" I never received any response from the OC other than the CMRR. The other day I refereshed my creditplus record -- and I have 0 collections (which was what I wanted) Not much else changed in my life -- but a "collection attempt of 60-120" knocks about 100 points of my FICO and a "paid collection" knocks about 30 off my FICO. It would have been nice if the OC would have at least contacted me, but this is in the end result I wanted (but it was far too painful). And the OC is a billing office for doctors, and is borderline incompetent. marty

I paid the OC creditor with a bank money order with the restrictive endorsement. I was glad it was cashed. Executing the followup CRA letters (http://whychat.5u.com/hipltr.html) I notice there's no space for an SSN. If I get my credit report off an online service, there's no identifying "report number" quoted (that I saw) Should an SSN and information about the account be sufficient? There's no instructions to use a purple font. Also do I send this CMRR (I'd rather save the money and fall back to CMRR if I don't get a reply). (BTW, the collection reappeared on transunion, my FICA dropped about 80 points when this appeared [i also opened up some other credit cards last month, so there was more activity]. Also the collection amount changed from $126 to $87).

Should I include a copy of the EOMB with the "part a" changing the language slightly from: In regard to the bill on this account in the amount of ($___): To: In regard for the remainder I owe on this account as per the EOMB ($63). (since I never got a valid bill) When I spoke to the OC, they said it was out of their hands, they acknowledged I owed on the account $63, but said the $126 I owed to the collection agency was interest and fee (!). They also faxed a $126 "remaining balance" to the collection agency.

But the OC has an obligation to report accurate information to the CA. If the OC does not report accurate information, and never sent me an accurate bill, what would be the next step? marty

Sent a letter with insert ( b ) -- not sure how to proceed here since it isn't a "paid" account but the OC is supplying incorrect information to the CA. Does this still fall under HIPAA? I haven't received a reply from the OC. (OC say the EOMB is correct, but says "its out of their hands", speak to the CA). They faxed an account statement to the CA which doesn't agree with the EOMB (the fax was for $126, the EOMB was for $63 remaining). marty

You got it right -- CA #1 is near the OC, CA #2 is in my state. I asked for validation from CA #1 and got something from CA #2. Do I say "paid" even with an outstanding balance from my EOB? (or do I say "partially paid"). Thanks a lot!! marty

Yes, the one which sent me "collection letters" is not the one reporting on the CRA. I never initiated correspondence with them. But the OC just faxed them an "account statement" which doesn't equal the EOMB. (it doesn't have the last insurance payment). So its an inaccurate bill, and they are trying to collect an inaccurate bill -- and they know it (assuming they know how to add). I'm not sure I understand the (a)(1)(A) sectioning in the following on the hipaa letter at: http://whychat.5u.com/hipltr.html (a) Duty of furnishers of information to provide accurate information. (1) Prohibition. (A) Reporting information with actual knowledge of errors Should I include their fax and my EOB with the HIPAA form letter (using insert B, inaccurate bill). Since I seem to be dealing with two collection firms, do I list them both? marty

Well, more on this. I just received a later today from the ORIGINAL CA with a copy of the ORIGINAL bill. I callled the OC and they said its out of their hands. They have records of the secondary payment, and said "speak to the collection agency". It appears they faxed the collection agency the OLD bill last week. (with the doctor, hospital, my phone number) This is a CA in my state (NY), the CA with delinquent information on me who never contacted me is in the city of the accident (Las Vegas). Since they weren't the CA with delinquent information about me, I don't know how to proceed. marty

Chronology: July, 2006 -- service Fall, 2006 -- received $300 bills (no submittal to insurance) [Note -- I broke my ankle -- everyone else I dealt with seemed to know the process] Winter/Spring 2006/2007 -- insurance paid 60% (when I told OC what to do) Summer, 2007 -- received bills for $120 Winter 2008 -- collection attempt from agency, ignored 3/2008 (they were supposed to pay 80%, not 60%) -- this occurred after several months of followup. After insurance paid 80%, OC never sent me a new bill nor returned my calls (for correct EOB of $60) Fall, 2008 -- noticed the derogatory reference on my credit report from different CA than contacted me last winter (for $120) Winter/spring 2009 -- started the HIPAA process - transunion and equifax verified, CA didn't respoind to DV request, transunion then deleted on followup, equifax just reverified. I couldn't pay OC since I never got a correct bill from them (though with the CMRR costs, this may have been a reasonable move) Do I have any course of action with the HIPAA since the OC has an incorrect debt being collected (and I never received a correct bill) marty

Yes, I sent the followup letter pre-ARRA language. I followed the steps exactly. Transunion correctly deleted, equifax would not. What would be the next step? An FTC complaint? marty

Why chat, The text changed on the web site last month -- I sent copies of the previous text verbatim. It wasn't reporting to experian. My EOMB details $60 as "my responsibility" -- but I never got a bill for the correct amount. marty

I've opted out. My "old addresses" are > 20 years old. Transunion deleted. I'm a bit puzzled -- I requested debt validation (with no response) and then comlained to the CRAs (1 deleted, one reverified, 1 doesn't have this listed). The text of the letters changed some -- should I send another debt validation request? I would imagine at this point I would I would either: a) complain to the FTC provide proof to the CRA the debt is incorrect (which I would think trumps a CA attempt to collect a dept, since they can't possibly validate it). marty

Correction -- equifax "verified" the debt belongs to me. past posting Should I just send a copy of my EOB to equifax (since the amount is wrong, the CA also never validated the debt). marty

I followed whychat's hipaa procedure. The CA never responded to my DV. Transunion removed the claim. Equifax just reiterrated "we valided the claim". The wording was the same as the first step "this item belong to you . If you have additional quesitons, talk to the CA" BTW, the amount being asked for is 2x the amount from my EOB. What would the next step be? marty

Here's another "interesting" thing. The entry on my credit report is from a CA near the OC (in Las Vegas). I never received anything from them. I have received letters from another CA in NYC, asking for payment. While they mentioned the OC, they never mentioned this other CA. I'm going to write letters to the CA on my credit report. But I don't understand how this other CA got involved... marty