Jump to content

Question: After CA Validates the Debt..


The last post in this topic was posted 3554 days ago. 


We strongly encourage you to start a new post instead of replying to this one.

Recommended Posts

Hi there!


I've been reading these forums for a bit now and finally decided to make a post - hopefully I can get some solid advice here. =]


So my dad received a collection notice from ACSI (Automated Collection Services) regarding a debt from a private club he is a member of. (Short story: He retired and his balance went past due 31 days. Promised to pay as soon as his federal retirement kicked in within 2 weeks, but crazy club administrator who has a personal vendetta against him sent it to collections anyway). The amount they say he owed was relatively close to what was expected, but we wanted to be extra sure that everything was precise -- there's another member at said club with the same name and they accidentally charge HIS purchases to my dad's account from time to time.


All of that being said, I sent a short, sweet DV letter to ACSI asking for an itemized list of the charges. They have a solid rep from what I've read so I figured they'd comply, and sure enough they did. Not only did they send an itemized list of charges from the club, but also the original signed application to join. Here's where the fun (read: questions) starts:


1. The itemized statement says $385 in monthly membership dues, but the application they sent with his signature specifically says $235. Disputable based on documentation THEY provided?


2. About a week and a half after the dunning notice was received, the OC (club) sent another invoice requesting payment. I could be wrong, but if the account it placed with a collection agency, isn't the OC supposed to stop dealing with the customer and refer them to the CA for questions and payment? It confused him because he now has 2 companies requesting payment for the same debt and doesn't know who to pay.


3. The debt needs to be (and is going to be) paid, mainly just waiting to see WHO actually gets the check. If the original creditor is paid, and we send a letter to the CA letting them know the OC kept sending statements after they had the account placed with them so we paid the club instead, the CA has to go away anyway, yes? And in that particular case, since we paid the OC by their request, can the CA still report it to the credit bureaus?



Thanks in advance for any advice! =]



Link to comment
Share on other sites


Is anything being reported already?

I had him pull his report yesterday and it doesn't look like anyone has reported anything yet.




General rule is you always want to write the check to the OC, and get them to cash it.

Is this particularly advantageous? If the OC accepts the payment, can this somehow prevent the CA from reporting anything? I understand the account has to be closed on their end since I would have proof of zero-balance, but I'm curious about other benefits to this.



Link to comment
Share on other sites

The last post in this topic was posted 3554 days ago. 


We strongly encourage you to start a new post instead of replying to this one.

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.

Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.


  • Member Statistics

    • Total Members
    • Most Online

    Newest Member
  • Create New...

Important Information