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I have a question. My sister was a cosigner for an auto loan, our niece was delinquent on the loan. she was notified by phone that our niece was late, She called her to make the final payment, which she did. the account is paid in full/closed/delinquent. How would my sister get this removed from her Credit report. I believe it is affecting her overall score. if anyone has any thoughts or a good letter to send to the CRA, we would so appreciate your help. Peter

I've currently one Derogatory remark on my Credit Bureau for unpaid Medical Collection for $1200.00 from one year back which is causing my credit score to drop and negative remarks while apply for new credit. Actually i had set up make monthly payments with Collection agency for $50 a month and made 2 months of payments but still the CA went a head and remarked on my credit bureau. When i asked why it was reported even though i made payments they mentioned that it'll be removed once it completely paid off. I did not trust them they will remove it and stopped making payments. Now what are my options? Shall i trust CA and make payment for removing it or look at other option. I've read through some of the whychat'threads here and looks like i can dispute them but not sure of some details. I'm reading this http://www.whychat.5u.com/GUIDEBOOK.html but looks like lot of info there. 1st step is to Opt Out. Does it mean Send letters to the 3 credit bureaus (Experian, EQuifax & Transunion) asking them not to disclose my info? Am i missing anything here? Shall i Wait for 30 days after Opt Out? Get your credit reports directly from each Credit Reporting Agency, you need reports with an individual ID#. What is an Individual ID? I can get these reports without waiting 30 days from the above step...right Get your MIB report. What is this report? Do i need to get this? I did not move since the date of delinquency. So i don't need to delete Old address...right I'm not sure what i need to do after? Please advise and thanks in advance.

Here is one perhaps someone can offer advice on? A friend has a mortgage with US Bank. In September 2010, fell 30 days late. Sent payment for September and October in late October, just before 60 days late. Payment was returned by US Bank (apparently at that level of lateness, must be certified funds) and US Bank immediately sent notice of foreclosure. A Forbearance Agreement was entered into December 2010. Basically, US Bank leveled nearly $5K in legal fees and demanded payment in full of all delinquent months. So the delinquency (which by now was nearly 90 days) was paid in full immediately and the $5K in legal fees were paid by adding an additional $400+ to each mortgage payment for the next year. Sounds like rape to me, but better than losing the home. All payments were made in certified funds by the first of each month during 2011. Fast forward to March 2013. Friend applies for a mortgage, and is OK for FHA, but turned down for conventional because US Bank reports the most recent episode of being 90 days late as January 2012. Friend disputes this with CRAs, and it comes back verified. Letters written to US Bank at address provided by CRAs, and is informed reporting is accurate. Friend starts calling US Bank, talking to anyone and everyone, trying to get an answer. And finally hits gold. Apparently, when an account goes into a Forbearance Agreement, all payments are deposited in a 'suspense' account. This account only gets 'swept' by US Bank every 90 days. So this follows what the credit reports show. Paid up as of 12/2010. Then 30 and 60 behind before next sweep brings it current, then pattern repeats. Apparently, it took longer at the end of the 12-month agreement, as that hit 90-late in January 2012 before returning to current. The issue is, there is nothing in the original loan paperwork, nor in the Forbearance Agreement, which states payments will be applied and reported this way. Basically, the last late payment was 12/2010. With that nearly 30 months old, friend would have qualified conventional. As reported by US Bank, last 90-day was only 16 months ago, so it is FHA or nothing. Can US Bank continue to report it this way? If payments are made in certified funds by the first of each month, does the borrower need to suffer such credit damage due to the lender's accounting practices? If not, any advice on how to get this resolved?