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PLEASE HELP! Brief summation: I had an account that I have not paid, was charged off and sold by HSBC to Cavalry. It was purchased by Capital One before it was sold I assume. I have been disputing this account since May for various reasons mainly because the reporting was sloppy and I thought I could get it removed. For every credit bureau dispute Capital One has updated the account but has never deleted. Recently, I filed a second dispute with the CFPB against Capital One because after the last update, the comments posted by Capital One stated "payment after charge off" but the status of the account does not say "paid charge-off". I received a response letter from Capital One executive Erika Rodriguez stating that my last payment was of $40 and made on August 29th, 2011. Well, I looked at the statements I had them send me from the first CFPB dispute and found that the payment was returned and was not applied to the account, yet they verified this multiple times to the credit bureaus, which means my date of first delinquency would be a month earlier then it list on my report. I also have my bank statement confirming the payment was returned. Because Calvary deleted their trade-in I also asked for bill of sale proving they own the account. Ms. Rodriguez's response was that they purchased it and she took the liberty of confirming with Calvary that they own the account. My question, is this a legitimate violation that I could leverage for deletion and is Calvary allowed to discuss my account status? Being that they purchased the account they are not the original creditor maybe this would give more leverage, how should I proceed?

Hi - I wish I could remember my old account on here and email.. but that's another story... anyway.. onto the meat of the post: I DV'd a CA who responded back, paraphrasing, that they are closing my account with them, informing the CRAs to delete and have sent the account back to the creditor. It's been about 8 or so years since I've done any credit clean up, but I seem to recall that if a CA can't validate the debt, they can't sell, transfer or other get rid of the account as it would violate FDCPA. Or am I completely off base and remembering things incorrectly?

So, I am following the Why Chat HIPAA Letter Program. I sent the "COLLECTION AGENCY VALIDATION/DISPUTE/CEASE AND DESIST" letter yesterday. The letter contained no personal identifiable information other than my name and account number. I did not sign the letter, and I sent it via fax from a free online faxing service. Today I received a letter in response in my mail. It says: "In response to your fax received 3/12/13, enclosed is validation of the debt." Enclosed I found 4 billing statements with all of my personal information on it. I can see billing cpt codes, treatments, insurance information, ect... My question is: I did not release this information, I did not sign a request, nor did I provide anything to verify my identity. Is this considered a violation of the HIPAA regulations? If so, what do I do now??? Thank you in advance for your help! --b