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  1. mizliz1011
    Hello all, When a credit card gets 180 days all, accounting rules call for it to be charged off to a value of -0- on the books of the owner of the debt. This does not mean that they cannot try to collect on it up to the SOL or sell it to a CA... But how can they report it as having a balance owing when it is on their books as -0-. Additionally, the three main CRA's sometimes report the same account in different ways. Discover and Webbank DFS (Dell) and Citibank all report it as owing money even thought they have sold or settled. Is this a violation of FCRA? I need to go after these because they are haunting me, usually mostly on Experian. HELP! and thank you

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