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It's a long story and I can't get into it all right now, but I will explain later. In the meantime, I just wanted to say I am back. I thought we had this, but not enough income from working and looking like we will loose our home for good this time. Worst part. No place to go, and my 11 yr old was just dx with Type 1 diabetes. (not Type 2) T1 is a life threatening auto immune disease, when the pancreas stops all together producing insulin. He is on insulin (insulin shots everytime he eats anything over 5-10 carbs, plus one long acting at night) blood checks about 10 times a day. He can eat what he wants (unlike diet restrictions of T2), but we have to count carbs and give an injection for it. It's scary enough to adjust to this disease, but now to be loosing our home of 16 years. It's just devastating. I don't know what we will do or where we will go. I am running out of options with PNC. I am for the record not that far behind. I owe August and Sept. I have to make a decision by Monday do I pay one payment that day, then what? Not much income coming in after November. Again, I will explain it all later. Just wanted to give an update. If any of you remember me.. that is. Thanks. PS: Anyone hear from Doodlebugger? She also had PNC, same issues with them as me with loan mod Chap7. etc..
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Hello, I have a home that was being rented out by a 3rd party company after a divorce that has been in foreclosure for more that 2 years. The home was supposed to be a lease to own for the tenants but the company went under and just abandoned all the properties. The foreclosure process then began in late 2010. Since then the mortgage has been sold to several lenders over the course of this time and appears on my credit report multiple times. It also is still pending now. I'm not sure what to do or if there is anything that I can do to speed this process along so that I can begin to repair my credit and move on with life. Also it show on my credit report multiple times (once with each previous lender that it was sold to) What can I do to get that removed or is that accurate? Any suggestions are greatly appreciated!! Thanks!
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In 2008 my ex wife got the house in a divorce. There was no way for her to refinance it in her name b/c of market at the time--she was $50,000 upside down and didn't have the money. It was best for the kids to stay where they were, so I just let let it ride. The Final Decree had very specific language about her financial responsibility. She moved to a new state a year later, in 2009, and hasn't made a payment on the house since then. I did have my name legally removed from the deed, but that is not the mortgage. I know. I know. I should have made her refinance it. I didn't--my mistake. But I didn't expect her to do what she did. Because my name was on the mortgage, the subsequent foreclosure is now on my credit. Is there any way to get the foreclosure and payment history removed from my credit? Somehow, she's managed to buy two houses in her new state; however, I just tried to refi my current house and couldn't do it because of the negative payment history and foreclosure. I hate that I tried to do the right thing by the kids and that now I'm stuck with a major credit downgrade because of her financial irresponsibility. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
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Wells Fargo started foreclosure proceedings in 2012, we were able to pay the late amount plus fees and the foreclosure was dismissed without prejudice in 6/2012. We went right back to regular payments and have never been late. My credit report shows that foreclosure started in 2012 and nothing else. It does reflect all of our payments since then but I'm not sure that it should even still be there.
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Hi there, I'm trying to help sort out some last few issues related to some property that was recently foreclosed on. The history: My mother purchased some land in Florida. She took out a mortgage to pay for the property. At the time, she did not live in the area but my wife and I did...so for purposes of inheritance and to legally allow us to maintain the land, we were put on the title (but NOT the note). Fast forward 10 years...My mother declared BK CH7. She was discharged back in May 2014. The property had already started the foreclosure process...it was put on hold for a short time until after discharge, and in July was sold in foreclosure auction (the lender took possession at auction). Prior to the foreclosure sale, we got permission from the BK trustee to remove my wife and myself from title so we could avoid having the foreclosure public record be associated with our names. We got this done in June 2014...just after Discharge of the BK in May...and prior to the foreclosure sale in July. So we've now requested to have my mother, my wife and my name removed from the HOA. But they are indicating that the current years dues have not been paid. So my questions and thoughts are: 1. What is the current law (Florida) surrounding HOA fees for a property that is foreclosed on? I did some research and found mention of statues that indicate the fees are the responsibility of the new owner (i.e. the lender) up to 12 months in arrears, but that seemed to be specific to condos. 2. I'm thinking worst case, since we were joint on the HOA...my mother's responsibility would be removed due to her BK. So would we only owe 1/2 of the HOA dues? 3. If the HOA forces us to pay, what is preventing them from collecting from the bank as well? Would that constitute fraud? Thanks!
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Hello: Bad times lead to Mortgage problems. Our Mortgage fell into arrears, and we requested a modification. Instead my Mortgage co. Assigned the Note to one of the 'distressed loan' type of lenders, but we were modified and have recovered. Almost 2 years have elapsed since I landed the decent job and we're still working diligently to recover. On my credit report, my old Mortgage co. (Saxon) shows $0.00 balance; last reported 12/10 as "120+ Days past due." But when they assigned, they were paid (something) by the new lender, and they closed my account... right? My NEW Mortgage company (RCS) is showing active, paid as agreed, and all is well there. My question is this: Can I-- or HOW can I-- get this old mortgage entry to show the real status, which is "assigned" or at least "paid off"? Can I get this removed based on the fact that it's no longer active? Finally, if this is a "Closed" account, then will it read like this forever (I think closed accounts don't leave your report) or will it instead fall off in the 7 year time frame?) Thank you for all your help. -- I know that's a lot of questions, and I know that any or all of my assumptions may be wrong or misspoken.
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I'm new to this part of CB. But I'm looking for guidance in purchasing a foreclosure in the state of North Carolina. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
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I went through a divorce a couple of years ago. One of the stipulations of the decree was that my ex was to have my name removed from the mortgage, instead she let the house get foreclosed on, and as we all know it has completely affected my credit. Is there anything I can do, like get a lawyer, go back to court, or something else, to get this foreclosure removed from my credit. I have already spoke with the bank and they don't care what the decree states. Any help would be appreciated Thanks
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Hi CB. I've had several foreclosures outside of the CA SOL. I'm starting to address those entries on my CR. So far, I've opted out, deleted all of my prior addresses, and formulated a Jack Attack Letter for all 3 CRAs to be mailed out this am. As of now, my scores are TU-695, EQ-688, and EQ- 681. Hopefully, this goes my way and Astoria Federal Savings is deleted. @ SBA - Thanks for your insight and continued help.
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Yesterday I pulled all three reports and in going through the accounts saw that my foreclosure (Capital One (who bought out ING)) was not listed. I last pulled a report and score on April 10, 2014 and it showed up there (EQ) and also showed up on credit monitoring reports in April, but it's gone from all three this month. My EQ report actually says, "You have no mortgage accounts." The account had a DOFD of March, 2010, but the foreclosure was not finalized until April, 2012. TU has always reported it as expected to come off March, 2017. I don't know what to think. I know Cap One filed an insurance claim because the insurer called to talk to me last month so maybe they got the insurance money and just put it to bed? I did not dispute the account so that's not the reason it's gone. I've not had an unexplained score jump either. Thoughts? I don't know if I should celebrate or worry. I mean, it's great if it really and truly is gone and as far as problems go, this is a good one to have, I just feel like there's another shoe about to drop. Has anyone ever heard of a foreclosure being deleted 3 years early??
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Long story short I foreclosed was finallized and sold in 2008. I had 2 mortgages one from US bank and the other from Bank of America. They were both listed as charged off in 2008 and are set to fall off this year as sol in my state is 6 years. Will I see a bump in my score at all once both of these mortgages fall off? These are not my oldest tradelines either. I understand that 35% of a fico score is made up of making payments on time. Once these fall off that only leaves 1 thing negative on my credit to clean up yet.
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got a letter from www.SupportLawCenter.com with an offer to negotiate a new mortgage using the federal laws. I am a little suspicious of them as it seems too easy... have looked online and there are a few good comments and some watch out comments. Has anyone had any experience with them? thanks so much.
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Hi all, New to the forum, but referred by a long time member. This is going to be quite a long post, but want to make sure I get all the details out there as best as I can. Back in January 2008, I jointly bought a timeshare w/ my gf at the time (don't they all start like this?). It was through Shell Vacations Club, which was recently purchased by Wyndham Vacations. What makes it worse is that I re-upped the timeshare in 2009, purchasing additional 'points'. All in, the combined amount was around $27k at some outrageously high rate. The plan was to pay it for a few years (selling some of the weeks to pay for it), then re-fi it at a reasonable rate. It all made sense back then. This was in both of our names / SSN's as she had kinda crappy credit and I had very little credit history. Plan was to use this to build my credit (and hers as well). In December 2009, I bought a condo, 100% in my name. In 2011, I broke up with that girlfriend, and she moved out. I paid off the credit card debt that she had ran up on a joint account, and she agreed to pay the timeshare (she was the one who wanted it / used it). In late 2013, I refi'd my condo. My credit report showed that the timeshare was still being paid and up to date, all looked good. My credit score was in the high 600's, everything was gravy. Looking on the credit report, there's around $20k left on the principal of the timeshares. Condo has a fair amount of equity (which will come into play later). In January 2014, the ex called to tell me she was going to stop paying the timeshare. Feb / March were extremely busy for me at my job (traveling almost every week), and I'm just now getting back to figuring out what to do. Collection phone calls have been nearly non-stop. A few options I'm considering: - Let the timeshare go into foreclosure. Not sure how much or how long this will affect my credit. I am living well below my means, and only have 1 credit card that I pay off each month, so this wouldn't be a huge immediate concern, but I'd like to have the option to buy another condo / house in 2 or 3 years. - Try to get a personal loan or HELOC, pay off the timeshare with the intent to donate it or give it back to the company. This way, I assume the amount of the debt at a much lower percentage rate without giving my ex the benefit of the payment history. - Bring the account current using cash and try to keep up with the payments while exploring options. I have no intent to use it, so I would only pay the principal / loan payment, not the maintenance fees. - ... ? Open to other suggestions Hopefully this is enough detail to get some good feedback on how to proceed.
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Hello everyone- Can anyone tell me if it is true that once a company admits an error in it's reporting to the CAs, all related credit reporting for that account must be removed? I am struggling with a very delinquent mortgage on a house that is now being sold in a short sale. The impact on my credit has been disastrous. It was originally with Countrywide. I disputed the reporting via Lexington Law. It was a long shot, but thought I would give it a try. The reporting was being done under the name Countrywide. Bank Of America now holds the loan. They reviewed their records, removed the Countrywide reporting (so I got a notice that it was removed- yippee!), then immediately put back on my CR in the name Bank of America (womp womp). Someone at Lexington law said that since BofA essentially demonstrated that their previous filings were erroneous by the removal of the Countrywide foreclosure status, ALL of the credit reporting for my mortgage had to be removed. I never followed up with Lexington Law because I canceled my service with them, but this has been a hope I have held on to without being sure 1. If it was true or 2. What to do next. I would appreciate any help you could give. Thanks very much. PS If I have inadvertently left out details that would help in answering this question, please let me know.
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I found my dream home, its a short sale. Realtor doesn't want to put a offer on it she says 113,000 is to get me interested. Then when I put a offer on it the bank will come back with the real price. I say okay lets see what happens am I missing something.
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Does anyone know if these vampires are still in business? (I know, they sold their portfolio to Ocwen a few months ago, but if I dispute a TL, will anyone respond, or will it quietly drop from my CR?)
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I was behind on my payments with Penfed on a loan I took out in 2008 and they refinanced my HELOC by incorporating the closing fees and late interest into a new HELOC in May of 2010, which since it was the only loan on my property is in a first lien position. Even though they did it as a HELOC, they closed the line of credit. My balance is $85,000.00 which is the original amount refinanced. The property has lost value and is worth about $52,000.00. Since LTV is upside down I want to approach Penfed from a position of leverage and rework the loan with a lower loan amount. I am current on my payments for this HELOC so it's not like I have to hurry and do something to prevent foreclosure. I looked at the promissory note and they mention MERS once in there but there is no 18 digit MERS identification number and I can't find where this note was securitized when I entered my SS # and address on Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae websites while searching for my note. Does anybody know if lenders securitize HELOC's, and especially HELOC's that are in a 1st Lien position? I don't know if Penfed services their own loans as a credit union but if I can find out Penfed had MERS involved with this, I should be able to uncover some fraud which would give me the leverage I need to negotiate with them on lowering the balance owed.
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Here is a scenario: Home foreclosed. BofA sues homeowners, awarded judgement for $215K ($190K loan balance plus fees). Fannie Mae takes ownership of home for $1000. Fannie Mae sells home for $175K. Court still shows judgment due to BofA unchanged at $215K. What am I missing? I would think BofA was made whole (except for maybe the fees) by Fannie Mae, as it was an FHA mortgage? So how is it that BofA got paid $190K by Fannie Mae to make them whole AND BofA still has a judgment showing they are owed $215K from homeowners? Should not the judgment now reflect only the difference between what the judgment was when entered and what the remaining difference is now, and not the whole amount? In other words, if the judgement gets paid today, BofA will have pocketed $405K for a $190K loan. Or, am I WAY confused over how this works? Would appreciate an explanation.
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First, a huge thanks to all here who helped with the credit repair and steered us through the 203K process last fall. We closed in October, all repairs have been completed, and we are thrilled with our new home. So, on to the next challenge: I am interested in purchasing and flipping a home I have found in a desirable neighborhood in Portland, ME. It most recently sold for $175K in 2006, and it was listed for sale at $225,000 in 2009. Unfortunately, the housing market corrected (tanked) and it was foreclosed on before it sold. There are over 50 comps from sales in 2013 within a few miles, as this area came back strong. All the comps have sold in the $198K-$225K range. The home is currently foreclosed, vacant, and falling into serious disrepair. It could be purchased for around $50K-$60K. Rehab costs to bring back home to 'best in neighborhood' condition would be approximately $50K-$60K. Basically, when the rehab is completed, the home would be worth double the investment put into it. As I just finished rehabbing my primary home, I have some nice equity, but precious little cash left on hand. As this new home would be an investment and not an owner-occupied home, 203K is out, as are things like FHA, as there are too many issues to pass inspection. Is there a way I could fund the purchase and rehab of this home using some combination of hard money based on the current and as-repaired value, maybe secured in part by the equity I have in my current home? Does anyone know people that lend hard money, or that invest in flips?
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After spending much time reading through the board and researching, I finally sent out my first dispute letter to the CRAs! Posting it, because maybe it would be helpful for others, and also would love to get feedback. Hoping this will work! Attn: Equifax Dispute Department I am writing to notify you that inaccurate information is being reported and request its immediate deletion, under the FCRA. According Equifax Credit Report, dated November 19, 2013, a recent balance of $187,000.00 is being reported as due. In March, 2008, my residence at *** was sold in foreclosure. I no longer own this property nor do I owe any outstanding balance, under the anti-deficiency statute, AZ RS 33-6, which excludes the single-family residence on 2.5 acres from a deficiency judgement. Further if the lender does not seek a deficiency judgement within 90-days from the sale of the property, under AZ RS 33-4, Section D, the proceeds of the sale, regardless of amount, shall be deemed in full satisfaction of the obligation. Enclosed is the Trustee’s Deed Upon Sale from Maricopa County showing the sale of this property, for your reference. I am also requesting that you send me a revised copy of my credit report once the correction has been completed. Thank you in advance for your prompt assistance with this. ****
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We have had a property in Costa Rica for several years financed thru a Costa Rican bank. We have been having some financial difficulties and have not been able to work anything out with the bank in regards to lowering our payments. We have missed the last couple of payments and have been informed by the bank that they will be starting a foreclosure process if we do not pay the outstanding balance immediately. Interest Rates are astronomical and they are not open to any kind of a loan modification. We have been trying to do the right thing and listed the property about 6 months ago with the hopes of selling it. We are trying to sell the property at about 50% of what we purchased it for 6 years ago and will have to to borrow money from our retirement funding just to get rid of the property. We have excellent credit and I can not get any answers as to whether a foreclosure in a foreign country will effect it. The loan or its payments have never shown up on our credit reports. Does anybody know what the consequences will be of a foreclosure in Costa Rica ? Any help is greatly appreciated.
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I have a home that was foreclosed on. The company that issued the notices and foreclosure is the one that serviced my loan. Now on my credit report, it shows another company that I was never notified of as being the party that issued the foreclosure. The servicing company is showing up as transferred. Is this possible? The foreclosure process did star with the servicing company and not the other that is showing up on the last 30 days that foreclosed.
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I had a foreclosure 3.5 years ago. After the foreclosure my "20 HELOC" was not paid because the house was "under water". I want to apply for an FHA loan and my current credit averages around 650 and everything has been paid including the HELOC. My question is the the FHA time wait of 3 years start on the date of the foreclosure or when we paid off the HELOC. I keep getting different answers even from underwriters. One said if the HELOC was not paid though the foreclosure then it becomes unsecured debt just like a credit card and FHA goes only by the date of the foreclosure. Had another one tell me, no its from the date when the HELOC was paid off. Has anyone been though this similar situation? Just trying to get the right answer before we start the process. Thanks in advance
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I had a foreclosure 3.5 years ago. After the foreclosure my "20 HELOC" was not paid because the house was "under water". I want to apply for an FHA loan and my current credit averages around 650 and everything has been paid including the HELOC. My question is the the FHA time wait of 3 years start on the date of the foreclosure or when we paid off the HELOC. I keep getting different answers even from underwriters. One said if the HELOC was not paid though the foreclosure then it becomes unsecured debt just like a credit card and FHA goes only by the date of the foreclosure. Had another one tell me, no its from the date when the HELOC was paid off. Has anyone been though this similar situation? Just trying to get the right answer before we start the process. Thanks in advance
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