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I'm almost positive (waiting on reports) that a debt has been re-aged when the collection agency reported the debt. My question is, (if I'm correct about the re-aging) should I DEMAND removal of the collection? And (again, if I'm correct) if it's removed, can it be reported back again to credit reports? Basically, husband went to emergency room visit in 2017. We never paid anything toward this visit so the bill became delinquent in 2017 as well. When looking at the reports, it gives an original creditor (hospital), gives the collection agency (some out of state agency), "open" date reported by the CA (this year, 2019) and it gives a "fall-off" date of 2026 (7 years from now, not 2017). If I'm correct, the "fall-off" date should be 2024, or early 2025.? All this is new to me but will I be wasting my time disputing or demanding removal if it can be replaced back on reports?
I'm new here but have a question regarding my husband's credit report. We've been trying to build our credit up in hopes of being approved for a home in the near future. Since we've had a credit karma account and an Experian account to monitor our 3 reports, he has had a medical collection added this year to all 3. This collection is coming from a ER visit 2-3 years ago. Credit karma does not list a "fall-off" date but does have an "open date" of July/2019. Through our Experian report it has a "fall-off" date of 2026 (7 years from the "open date" that's listed. My understanding is the "fall-off" date should be 7 years after the first delinquency (nothing was ever paid towards the bill so it should have became delinquent the same year or the next from the hospital visit, depending on the month the visit took place). If this visit was, say May 2017, should the "fall-date" not be somewhere around Dec. 2024? Our confusion is coming from the "fall-off" being seven years from the time the Collection Agency bought the debt. Can anyone clear this up for me please. Sorry for the long post, just hoping I explained clearly enough. Thank you all!