Hello,
I've read through the HIPAA process, but am unsure what amount to pay the OC (doctor).
The debt is about 3 years old.
(For two related accounts with the same CA) The OC original charge is $800 but the interest from the CA is close to $280.
The OC told me they will not accept $800 as payment in full, and will sign over any check to the CA. (Of course I would restrict any endorsement per the advice here). They love their CA and believe they deserve to make money (barf). The OC will clearly not settle for anything less than the original amount, plus whatever the CA wants to charge.
I've only contacted the CA in writing for DV and to stop phone calls.
The debt came back validated.
The CA had tried to serve me on multiple occasions and is now trying to serve me via certified mail using the OC's name as sender (mail fraud?). I won’t pick it up at the PO.
The SoL may be 3 years in CO, but I am not sure...that could be why they recent effort to serve me several times recently over a relatively small debt.
I've considered suing for HIPAA violations in that the OC sent unnecessary medical information to the CA (poorly redacted information was clearly visible on the copy sent to me by the CA), and the names of the OC's as reported to the CRAs clearly indicate a possible medical condition. I've written them (OC, CA and 3 CRAs) to correct the situation, and warn them of legal action...no response.
Main Question: If I pay the OC, can I pay the $800 and ignore the interest from the CA? I don't think the OC will consider the account paid in full, but I'd really like to give the "FU" to the CA.
This leads to a more interesting situation in which the CA may only be attempting to collect their own interest charges on a paid medical debt….can they legally retain medical billing information in this case?
Thanks for all the great info on this site!
- 1 year into credit repair and not making much progress.