i sent the initial dispute letter to EX

35 days later they verify

i sent LETTER TO COLLECTION AGENCY ON MEDICAL ACCOUNT REPORTING WITH A BALANCE DUE

[/list]they received the Letter yesterday

do i send the FOLLOW UP LETTER TO CRA now or wait 30 days for them to respond

Thanks for your help
the Medical collections were just removed from the other two CRA's

Send it as soon as you have received the green card back.

thank you it will go out today

I received a letter from the CA today that simply stated pursuant to section 809 of the FDCPA please find the enclosed itemized statements regarding the above accounts.

Is this enough to prove a relationship with the OC? Should i now follow the next step in the HIPPA letter process?

We need more information, when was the DOS, and what do you mean by "itemized statements" did they listed out specific medical procedures?

here is what they sent and a cover letter





I have not received a response from the CRA yet

I am on the fence on this,
It really looks like full validation to me, but it is beyond SOL, so I am going to let Why Chat make the call on what you next step should be.
I am going towards the HIPAA letter to the OC with insert "A", but I defer to Why Chat, for the final call.

I suggest the OP wait until he receives a response from the CRA ( is it reporting to only ONE CRA??)

This is beyond SOL as it is from a Dr.'s office, not a hospital and unless you have reason to believe that you actually owe the $$ with copies of original bills and/or an insurance EOMB I am inclined to think that it is a "batch" bill that this medical practice farmed out for collection and that it was likely either paid by you or your insurance or was a discounted balance after your insurance paid.

If you believe it is completely valid, i.e. it matches your records and EOMB then, yes, pay it to the OC with the HIPAA letter insert "a"
http://whychat.5u.com/hipltr.html

My apologies to OP for butting into this thread!

But(t), Whychat, can you explain the distinction being made between the bill being from the Dr.'s office vs. being from the hospital? I've seen this distinction before in other threads, and it seems to be important, but I'm really fuzzy on this. Why does it matter where the bill originates?

The LEGAL SOL for being sued on a medical account is 4 years in most States, although some are less ranging from 2-3 years in several States. However, in cases where SOL was the ONLY defense in a lawsuit from a hospital the Courts ruled that because hospitals receive TAX$$ for reimbursement for "no-pays" that the hospital was considered the same as a "Governmental entity" and was exempt from application of any State SOL. ( just like student loans or library fines or parking tickets). So even though the chances of being sued for a few hundred $$ in the case of a legitimate validated hospital bill are remote, it is still a legal debt, unlike a Dr. or Dentist's past SOL bill,

Additionally, while I believe that doctors and dentists and other health care services SHOULD be paid what they are owed, the simple fact is that almost all of these accounts being reported are the result of billing errors, lack of proper insurance billing or identity theft. So, if an account is more than 4 years old and being reported, as in this case, on only one credit report, and the OP has no "back-up" documentation to PROVE that the bill is correct and his obligation, there is no reason, IMO to pay it with the HIPAA letter.

I have often advised people in similar situations, that once they have obtained a deletion of a medical account from their credit reports, they can, if they wish still pay the OC if they believe they actually owe the $$.( NOT with the HIPAA letter)

Hopefully if the health care legislation passes, many of these problems will gradually disappear and the hospitals in particular will not have to resort to "creative billing" to compensate for those who have no insurance.

Thanks Why Chat!
I have a question about this as it pertains to my situation, but will post it there when the time comes.