QUOTE(54regcab @ Mar 10 2007, 07:25 AM)

Kind of. Some 401Ks sell funds in "units" instead of shares. The shares to units conversion is where they get thier fees, and there is no mention of it in the prospectus. I know, my last 401K popped me with this one.
Ah. That would explain something I noticed after the "correction". With classic bad timing, my company's 6% contribution went into my account the day of the big drop in the Dow. (This is in lieu of a pension plan; everyone gets 6% of their previous year's salary contributed regardless of whether they contribute anything else and it's given at the end of Feb. to employees who were active as of the previous December 31.)
Even though our investment options include publicly-traded funds, I couldn't match the cost of the investments made in AEPGX with that money with the reported share prices for February 26 or 27, or March 1. They were off by a factor of about 8. Now I know why. Sneaky. I suspect that we got the February 26 price, though- before the drop. A small annoyance in the long-term view, but still an annoyance.
But to go back to the OP's question- look at the graphs of values for your mutual funds since inception. The huge drop in the Dow in October, 1987 probably looks like a little dent in the curve now. That may be what we have now. (In my amateur opinion- this advice is worth exactly what you paid for it.) The 1999-2001 drop probably had a lot worse effect- a nightmarish long, slow drift. In either case, it's not time to panic and even if we were getting into a 1999-2001 scenario I'd be moving more into stocks.