deadbeavis

Ok, so in essence the card should not be used for purchases whilst there is an existing BT since the grace period is effectively waived. Reading the BT FAQ's does not provide enough transparency on this. It is too bad since I use this card heavily for purchases due to CB. Thanks for the info!

Yeah -- I get existing CC BT offers for 0/0 for 12 mos+ but are subject to rules about purchases. It seems even though I do not carry a balance that can be subject to interest, I cannot choose to make payment to the purchase allocation which is SUBJECT to the higher interest rate while a BT promo exists. I've found a couple of credit cards that do that by default, like Discover, who said if I want to pay the purchase part subject to higher interest, I can, but must request it. Above creditor, Alliant, says straightforward if you have a purchase balance they are not gonna pay that first without recourse. Is this a loophole in the 2009 Credit Act which states any payment made to a CC should be allocated to the higher interest rate first, not transactions SUBJECT to it?

Our time is valuable. Since I left Tmobile I've been on the phone with them on 3 occasions; one for a porting issue, the 2nd due to being locked out of my account and getting nowhere the first round, and finally calling them to do the honorable thing by paying the bill they had no itemized record of, leading to a confirmation waiving those charges. This is besides the wait time to get someone on the phone. There is a precedence of frustration and this post is the epitome of it. However -- I just had a conversation with a T-mobile rep again, and apparently they never waived those charges officially even though they acknowledge record of the call. They are advising to contact the CA (or however you want to label them) to support my claim the charges were waived. For the record, it clearly states from the third party that the notice is being sent from a collection agency.

Possibly I didnt make the scenario clear. Other than some service residual due (there was no contract in force) I had every right to transfer my phone# to another carrier, which I did. I knew in advance there was probabaly going to be a balance due but Tmobile seems to suspend online accounts after transfers are completed. So I called them to request access but they could not, and proceeded to waive the bill due because of it. As noted in original post I first received a collection notice, then the bill from Tmobile later on. The collection notice inferred it was past due, but the Tmobile notice showed the bill was due 1/19 and scheduled to be withdrawn from my CC on autopay. It's pretty clear there is collection activity before the bill is actually due and sole reason for my post here.

You didn't read my original post in its entirety. The bill was forgiven, there was nothing due also inferring there was no other collateral obligation, which was stated intently to avoid such a response. Additionally the third party clearly stated they were a debt collector along with mini-miranda. I'm pretty sure there is some federal guideline that states collection activity cannot begin until the bill is past due! Please let me know what debt obligation there is left to resolve here.

Transferred my phone service out of T-mobile. They cancelled my online account so I could not get access to my bill. I called them about it and they couldn't access it either at the time, so the rep cancelled whatever was due with a conf #. Nonetheless, got a hard copy bill mailed due 1/19 from T-mobile that at the time was not past due.. But... got a hard copy collection letter from Convergent 1/5 with the same amount. What's the handling process for this, assuming its a violation?

I was in a lease agreement to rent a clarinet with the option to buy. I paid on time for a couple of years then my CC expired. I let a lot of time go by (like 6 months) before remembering to acknowledge the issue but in no way does this amount to theft. However, Veritas is sending me collections with my state statute for the reason of Theft of Conversion citing a threat of criminal prosecution. When I spoke to them about a month ago I had every intent to pay off the amount I owed (something like $300) since they refused to allow me to re-enter into continuation of lease. Additionally, they have listed on my TU and EQ CR and when faced with this question, said they will remove once full payment is rendered (I have this in writing). This sounds like blackmail by an instrument not intended for this purpose, but I will admit lapses of judgement not paying earlier. The problem now is they wont honor any removal, only demand of return of instrument. I've made attempts to contact them the last couple days stating the date, time, purpose of call and my phone # during their business hours, yet have not heard back from them. What are my possible recourses and actions here?

I inquired about this with my Discover card prior to making purchases before I did one just to see what would happen. CSR said to avoid purchase interest payments exceeding min due are first applied to charges subject to higher APRs. Keeping that in mind-- Balance was 0 Transferred $7k at 0 % APR Purchase APR is 12.5% Made a 9.00 purchase 7/12 Once it posted a few days later paid the 9.00 Paid the min due at closing 7/23 Got my next statement no interest charged. Paid the min due at next closing Got the next statement Charged 1.37 interest. Asked CSR -- they said avoiding higher interest on purchase was NOT guaranteed carrying a balance with lower APR. I asked them to again outline how this works. They could not explain clearly, only to state I should avoid making purchases if I am used to paying in full. So why have a rule to avoid interest on higher APR if its not guaranteed? Meanwhile, checked with Amex and it's exactly as expected: I am offered a Grace period for purchases with higher APRs carrying a balance with lower APRs. As long as I make the payments before the closing date and its covers the purchase balance (above min due), there is no interest assessed. Its seems Discover is taking advantage by charging interest immediately after using the card for purchases with a baiting promo offer. I don't think anyone in their right mind would stand for interest being charged immediately after a purchase, which is what is seems to be.

Nah wasn't one of those but just saying APR is in much larger fine print than when the specified APR is imposed. Based upon side effect from phone talk I would not depend upon them to help with anything bigger. I have never experienced first hand a bunch of corporate monkeys in action like that. Absolutely zero thought process responses.

That mortgage APR is unheard of! How did you manage that? I thought mine at 3.8 was good. Now I feel scammed lol. Why I don't shop at Whole Foods anymore. Too much good stuff (at least used to be) and the costs are usually not supportive compared to adequate alternatives.

I would agree in a bubble and manage most of my cards without revolving balances except promos. However, not everyone manages their cards without carryover balances and even mistakes or routine of busy life allows that to happen. If a card charges 50% interest from day one wouldn't that grab your attention? This doesn't but comes close enough! I spoke with 3 reps this AM, they are like f'n monkeys. No way to know why exactly and no way to change through 'normal' channels (probably a backdoor or retention method but will wait until the promos expire)

Just applied and approved 10k @ 27.74%!!!! None of my cards are higher than 15%. FICO Score 745 no revolving debt at time, no inquiries, 400k mortgage @ 3.8%--they pulled TU. Only got card for promo 250 back /1000 purchases 0% 12 mos. Will sock drawer after that. This seems like super subprime.

Noticed a trend of older TL's dropping off CR, like really good closed history of mortgages, loans and CC's. Some were nearing 20 years, others were <10. Reduced ages of history and thus score drops. Anything todo about it?

Anyone have this card? Just got in mail with No AF, No BT Fee, and 15 mos @ 0%. Worth a hit? Doesn't seem subprime.

Sorry-- I was thrown off-topic for a moment and apologize for not responding to some comments including yours which were fruitful but didn't acknowledge. Back on topic -- appreciate external links and direction. I gathered: It seems i'm better off leaving 401K loan alone for now (which answers my main concern) Concentrate on high APR. Find better advice from a 3rd party fiduciary or forums to reassess 401k designations